Phillips Curve¶
by Professor Throckmorton
for Intermediate Macro
W&M ECON 304
Slides
Summary¶
Phillips Curve: negative relationship b/t inflation ($\pi_t$) and unemployment ($u_t$),
i.e., if central bank wants lower inflation, then the economy must make the sacrifice of higher unemploymentTesting the Phillips Curve in the United States
1960s: low and stable inflation, i.e., $\pi^e \approx 0 \rightarrow corr(\pi_t,u_t) < 0$
1970 to 1995: big positive oil price shocks, $\uparrow \pi \rightarrow \uparrow \pi^e \rightarrow \uparrow \pi$
1996 to 2019: Fed achieves goal of $\pi^e \approx 2$
Phillips Curve can be expressed relative to the medium-run equilibrium
Starting from Labor Market¶
The Phillips Curve comes from the Labor Market
\begin{gather*} W = P^e F(u,z) \\ P = (1+m)W \end{gather*}
and the medium-run equilibrium determines the natural rate of unemployment.
Right now $P$ shows up, but we want relationship between $\pi$ and $u$. Recall for Chapter 2
\begin{gather*} \pi_t = P_t/P_{t-1} -1 \end{gather*}
Adding time and the inflation rate
Want: relationship b/t $\pi$ and $u$
Substitute WS into PS \begin{gather*} P = (1+m)P^e F(u,z) \end{gather*}
Add time subscripts and divide by $P_{t-1}$ \begin{gather*} P_t/P_{t-1} = (1+m)(P_t^e/P_{t-1}) F(u_t,z) \end{gather*}
where $m$ and $z$ are constant w.r.t. timeNote from definition of $\pi_t$ that \begin{gather*} P_t/P_{t-1} = 1 + \pi_t \end{gather*}
and similarly \begin{gather*} P_t^e/P_{t-1} = 1 + \pi_t^e \end{gather*}
Combine equations
Combine results from steps 3. and 4. \begin{gather*} 1 + \pi_t = (1+m)(1 + \pi_t^e) F(u_t,z) \end{gather*}
That's difficult to interpret. It is a nonlinear equation, e.g., $\pi_t^e$ multiplies $u_t$.What is worker bargaining power, $F(u_t,z)$? Remember $\uparrow u_t \rightarrow \downarrow worker B.P.$. Let's assume \begin{gather*} F(u_t,z) = 1 - \alpha u_t + z \end{gather*}
Substitute out worker bargaining power function \begin{gather*} 1 + \pi_t = (1+m)(1 + \pi_t^e) (1 - \alpha u_t + z) \end{gather*}
This is still nonlinear.
Approximate linearly
We'll use natural logs to approximate the Phillips curve linearly. In disciplines that use dynamic models, e.g., economics, physics, and biology, this is known as log-linearizing.
Recall some facts about logs from math class: \begin{gather*} \log(XY) = \log(X) + \log(Y) \\ \log(1+X) \approx X \textrm{ if $X$ is small} \end{gather*}
Apply properties of logs
Apply $\log(XY) = \log(X) + \log(Y)$ \begin{align*} 1 + \pi_t &= (1+m)(1 + \pi_t^e) (1 - \alpha u_t + z) \\ \rightarrow \log(1 + \pi_t) &= \log(1+m) + \log(1 + \pi_t^e) + \log(1 - \alpha u_t + z) \end{align*}
Note $0.10 < m < 0.20$. Also $0 < \pi < 0.10$, and the same is true for $\pi^e$, $u$, and $z$, i.e., they are relatively small.
Apply $\log(1+X) \approx X$. \begin{gather*} \pi_t \approx \pi_t^e - \alpha u_t + m + z \end{gather*}
This is equation 8.2 in Blanchard, Macroeconomics (9th Edition, 2025).
Phillips Curve (PC)¶
$$ \pi_t \approx \pi_t^e - \alpha u_t + m + z $$
Properties of the Phillips Curve all relate to Labor Market
$\uparrow \pi_t^e \rightarrow \uparrow \pi_t$: If workers expect prices to rise, then they will demand higher wages, which leads firms to eventually raise prices. Thus the expectation is self-filling.
$\uparrow m \rightarrow \uparrow \pi_t$: If firms markup of price above cost rises, then prices are growing faster.
$\uparrow z \rightarrow \uparrow \pi_t$: Any policies that increase worker bargaining power will allow workers to demand high wages, driving up costs and prices.
An Experiment
- We defined $m$ as the markup, but we can also interpret it as any non-labor costs.
- In the 1970s United States, we saw a 5-fold increase in the price of oil.
- That kind of shock is known as a "cost-push" shock, which is inflationary, and shifts up the PC.
- If inflation remains high for too long, then people begin to expect higher inflation, which shifts up the PC again due to a wage-price spiral.
- An increase in $m$ shifts up the PC
- At $u_n$, inflation rises from $\pi_0$ to $\pi_1$
- We know from labor market that $\uparrow m \rightarrow \uparrow u_n$.
- Thus $\alpha$ tells us how much $u$ must rise for inflation to return to $\pi_0$.
- The PC would also shift up if $\pi^e \uparrow$
Testing the PC¶
The Phillips Curve is a testable hypothesis (i.e., linear regression) \begin{gather*} \pi_t = \pi_t^e - \alpha u_t + m + z +\textrm{residual}_t \end{gather*}
The test is whether $\alpha$ is statistically significantly positive when controlling for expected inflation.
- $\pi_t$: current inflation
- $\pi_t^e$: expected inflation (measured by market/survey data)
- $\alpha$: sensitivity of wages demanded to the business cycle
- $u_t$: current unemployment (summarizes the business cycle)
- $m$: markup of price over cost
- $z$: other things that affect worker bargaining power
Expected Inflation
In practice, there are two popular measures of expected inflation
Survey data: ask people for their inflation forecasts, e.g., Philadelphia Fed Survey of Professional Forecasters
Market data: observe difference in bond prices on nominal bonds and inflation-indexed bonds. Inflation-index bonds are officially called Treasury Inflation Protected Securities (TIPS).
In theory, we can simplify the model with an assumption about expected inflation
- Assume expected inflation is anchored to some value, $\pi_t^e = \bar{\pi}$.
- Assume expected inflation is adapting to recent data, $\pi_t^e = \pi_{t-1}$.
- Inflation is low and stable around 1% in early-mid 1960s.
- It is safe to assume that at that time expected inflation was anchored to 1%.
The 1960s¶
Notice inflation in early 1960s is about $1\%$ (low and stable)
Let's assume people are forming expectations given what they observe:
\begin{gather*} \pi_t^e = \bar{\pi} \approx 1\% \end{gather*}
i.e., expectations are anchored at some value
Phillips curve becomes
\begin{gather*} \pi_t = \bar{\pi} -\alpha u_t + m + z \end{gather*}
If the assumption that worker bargaining power is countercyclical, i.e., $\uparrow u_t \rightarrow \downarrow \textrm{ worker } B.P.$, is good, then Phillips curve predicts:
\begin{gather*} \textrm{Corr}(\pi_t,u_t) < 0 \end{gather*}
- In 1960s, obvious negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.
- Relationship looks nonlinear since the unemployment rate cannot fall further.
- After 1960s, no clear relationship between inflation and unemployment.
- Q: Is the Phillips curve irrelevant?
- A: It depends on how people form expectations.
1970 to 1995¶
Big positive oil price shocks cause inflation to rise rapidly
People form expectations given what they observe: \begin{gather*} \pi_t^e = \pi_{t-1} \end{gather*} i.e., expectations have become unanchored from a particular value
Phillips curve becomes
\begin{align*} \pi_t &= \pi_{t-1} -\alpha u_t + m + z \\ \pi_t - \pi_{t-1} &= -\alpha u_t + m + z \\ \Delta \pi_t &= -\alpha u_t + m + z \end{align*} where $\Delta \pi_t \equiv \pi_t - \pi_{t-1}$.
The Phillips curve predicts:
\begin{gather*} \textrm{Corr}(\Delta \pi_t ,u_t) < 0 \end{gather*}
- Each point is a year between 1970 and 1995.
- The vertical axis is the first difference of the inflation rate.
- The $p$-value on the slope is close to zero, so the slope is statistically significantly different from zero.
1996 to 2019¶
- In early 1990s, Fed settles on $2\%$ inflation target
- Fed (mostly) successfully achieves and maintains target from 1996 to 2019
- Inflation expectations are anchored, $\pi^e \approx 2\%$
- Thus, the best model for the PC is the same as 1960s
Medium-run Equilibrium¶
Substitute $\pi_t = \pi_t^e$ and $u_t = u_n$ into Phillips curve \begin{gather*} \pi_t = \pi_t - \alpha u_n + m + z \end{gather*}
Solve for $u_n$ \begin{gather*} u_n = (m + z)/\alpha \end{gather*}
The equilibrium/natural unemployment rate increases if
- the markup increases
- worker B.P. increases (not because of the business cycle)
- the sensitivity of wages demanded to an increase in B.P. falls
Want: Phillips Curve relative to eqm so we can study how inflation responds to events/policy changes
Substitute $u_n = (m + z)/\alpha$ into Phillips curve \begin{align*} \pi_t &= \pi_t^e - \alpha u_t + {\color{red}\alpha}\frac{m + z}{\color{red}\alpha} \\ \pi_t &= \pi_t^e - \alpha u_t + \alpha u_n \end{align*}
Rearranging/simplifying \begin{gather*} \pi_t - \pi_t^e &= - \alpha (u_t - u_n) \end{gather*}
Suppose $\pi_t^e = \bar{\pi}$ (as supported by data from 1996 to 2019, and hopefully from 2024 onward) \begin{align*} \pi_t - \bar{\pi} &= - \alpha (u_t - u_n) \end{align*}
Interpretation
- If $u_t = u_n$ (eqm), then $\pi_t$ is stable at the target
- If $u_t > u_n$ (not eqm), then $\pi_t$ is below the target
- If $u_t < u_n$ (not eqm), then $\pi_t$ is above the target
The last two, if sustained for a significant time, may erode the central bank's credibility and possibly unanchor expectations.